有关九大行业中ACCA会员薪资待遇的解读,赶紧来查阅!

发布时间:2020-02-07


ACCA作为全球久负盛名的国际注册会计师,其认可度自然不同一般。不过,比起认可度大部分人关注的应该是这部分人群的就业优势及他们的薪酬待遇。接下来就跟随51题库考试学习网一起来看看吧。

1.四大会计师事务所

四大会计师事务所都是很喜爱ACCA学员的,四大有审计和咨询两种职位,咨询工资比审计高一点。普遍新人参考工资:普华永道10RMB/年,加上出差补助和奖金等,可能达到13RMB/年,经常在外工作的可能接近16RMB/年,其他三大都比普华永道略高。随着工作时限的增加,薪资也会涨的飞快。如果成为合伙人,薪酬将无法估量,百万年薪起跳。

2.内资会计事务所

占行业大多数的内资会计事务所的薪资要比“四大”要略低一些,但工作几年后25-35万年薪也是有的。而且在工作强度上,内资所的压力要比四大相应低一些。

3.国有大中型企业

国内的企业财务起薪一般不会很高,刚毕业一般第一年的起薪在5-8万元,但如果做到财务总监或经理后,年薪可达到30万。对于拥有ACCA资格的人来说,职业发展速度会非常快,而且薪资的涨幅也会很大。

4.某些员工待遇很高的大型外企

某些大型外企参考工资(不同部门差别往往很大,以第一年工资较高的为准):宝洁营销或财务部门7-10RMB/年,马士基10-20万,玛氏12万左右。强生、联合利华略低于宝洁。

5.外资商业银行或全能银行

如荷兰银行、兴业银行、汇丰银行、巴克雷银行等,它们的投资银行和商业银行隔膜不是很大,但各个部门也有一定差别,往往比一般的消费者银行、保险职位高许多。

外资全能银行参考工资:投资银行类职位可达40-80RMB/年,商业银行类职位7-12RMB/年,比较好的可能达到20RMB/年。

6.外资投资银行

特指高盛、摩根士丹利、花旗全球投资银行、雷曼兄弟、德意志银行、瑞士信贷第一波士顿、瑞银华宝等海外第一流投资银行,它们都在中国设有代表处或分支机构。

投资银行参考工资(研究生第一年,本科生可能略低):高盛东京90RMB/年,德意志亚太区75RMB/年,摩根士丹利北京25RMB/(年终分红另算)

7.合资或中资投资银行

包括中金公司、高华证券,中银国际勉强可算一个。事实上中金相当于摩根士丹利的中国分支机构,工资极高。高华相当于高盛的中国分支机构,组建不久,前途尚未可知。工资可参考外资投资银行,一般略低一些。

8.外资咨询公司

咨询公司参考工资:麦肯锡、贝恩15-20RMB/年,罗兰贝格10RMB\年,其余介于两者之间。第二年工资涨100%,第三年涨50%-100%,三到四年后年薪一般可超过50RMB

9.互联网公司

互联网公司目前的工资想必大家都知道了,应届生基本都是月薪1-2w,而阿里巴巴现任首席财务执行官-武卫女士,便是一名ACCA资深会员。多年来ACCA为阿里巴巴输送了多位国际化财会人才,皆已成为阿里巴巴财务岗位上的不可缺失的重要管理者,不仅阿里巴巴,腾讯、华为等国内高科技公司,国外的Google等也都是非常认可ACCA的。

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下面小编为大家准备了 ACCA考试 的相关考题,供大家学习参考。

2 The Information Technology division (IT) of the RJ Business Consulting Group provides consulting services to its

clients as well as to other divisions within the group. Consultants always work in teams of two on every consulting

day. Each consulting day is charged to external clients at £750 which represents cost plus 150% profit mark up. The

total cost per consulting day has been estimated as being 80% variable and 20% fixed.

The director of the Human Resources (HR) division of RJ Business Consulting Group has requested the services of

two teams of consultants from the IT division on five days per week for a period of 48 weeks, and has suggested that

she meets with the director of the IT division in order to negotiate a transfer price. The director of the IT division has

responded by stating that he is aware of the limitations of using negotiated transfer prices and intends to charge the

HR division £750 per consulting day.

The IT division always uses ‘state of the art’ video-conferencing equipment on all internal consultations which would

reduce the variable costs by £50 per consulting day. Note: this equipment can only be used when providing internal

consultations.

Required:

(a) Calculate and discuss the transfer prices per consulting day at which the IT division should provide

consulting services to the HR division in order to ensure that the profit of the RJ Business Consulting Group

is maximised in each of the following situations:

(i) Every pair of consultants in the IT division is 100% utilised during the required 48-week period in

providing consulting services to external clients, i.e. there is no spare capacity.

(ii) There is one team of consultants who, being free from other commitments, would be available to

undertake the provision of services to the HR division during the required 48-week period. All other

teams of consultants would be 100% utilised in providing consulting services to external clients.

(iii) A major client has offered to pay the IT division £264,000 for the services of two teams of consultants

during the required 48-week period.

(12 marks)

正确答案:
(a) (i) The transfer price of £750 proposed by the IT division is based on cost plus 150% from which it can be deduced that
the total cost of a consulting day is (100/250) x £750 = £300. This comprises £240 (80%) variable cost and £60
(20%) fixed cost. In this instance the transfer price should be set at marginal costs plus opportunity cost. It is assumed
in this situation that transferring internally would result in the IT division having a lost contribution of £750 – £240 =
£510 per consulting day. The marginal cost of the transfer of services to the HR division is £190 (£240 external variable
costs less £50 saving due to use of internal video-conferencing equipment). Adding the opportunity cost of £510 gives
a transfer price of £700 per consulting day. This is equivalent to using market price as a basis for transfer pricing where
the transfer price is set at the external market price (£750) less any costs avoided (£50) by transferring internally.
(ii) There is in effect no external market available for one of the required pairs of consultants within the IT division and
therefore opportunity cost will not apply and transfers should be made at the variable cost per consulting day of £190.
The other pair of consultants, who would otherwise be 100% utilised in providing consulting services to external clients,
should be charged at a rate of £700 per day which represents marginal cost plus opportunity cost.
(iii) The lost contribution from the major client amounts to £264,000/(2 x 240) = £550 less variable costs of £240 =
£310 per consulting day. Thus, in this instance the transfer price should be the contribution foregone of £310 plus
internal variable costs of £190 making a total of £500 per consulting day.

(b) You are the audit manager of Johnston Co, a private company. The draft consolidated financial statements for

the year ended 31 March 2006 show profit before taxation of $10·5 million (2005 – $9·4 million) and total

assets of $55·2 million (2005 – $50·7 million).

Your firm was appointed auditor of Tiltman Co when Johnston Co acquired all the shares of Tiltman Co in March

2006. Tiltman’s draft financial statements for the year ended 31 March 2006 show profit before taxation of

$0·7 million (2005 – $1·7 million) and total assets of $16·1 million (2005 – $16·6 million). The auditor’s

report on the financial statements for the year ended 31 March 2005 was unmodified.

You are currently reviewing two matters that have been left for your attention on the audit working paper files for

the year ended 31 March 2006:

(i) In December 2004 Tiltman installed a new computer system that properly quantified an overvaluation of

inventory amounting to $2·7 million. This is being written off over three years.

(ii) In May 2006, Tiltman’s head office was relocated to Johnston’s premises as part of a restructuring.

Provisions for the resulting redundancies and non-cancellable lease payments amounting to $2·3 million

have been made in the financial statements of Tiltman for the year ended 31 March 2006.

Required:

Identify and comment on the implications of these two matters for your auditor’s reports on the financial

statements of Johnston Co and Tiltman Co for the year ended 31 March 2006. (10 marks)

正确答案:
(b) Tiltman Co
Tiltman’s total assets at 31 March 2006 represent 29% (16·1/55·2 × 100) of Johnston’s total assets. The subsidiary is
therefore material to Johnston’s consolidated financial statements.
Tutorial note: Tiltman’s profit for the year is not relevant as the acquisition took place just before the year end and will
therefore have no impact on the consolidated income statement. Calculations of the effect on consolidated profit before
taxation are therefore inappropriate and will not be awarded marks.
(i) Inventory overvaluation
This should have been written off to the income statement in the year to 31 March 2005 and not spread over three
years (contrary to IAS 2 ‘Inventories’).
At 31 March 2006 inventory is overvalued by $0·9m. This represents all Tiltmans’s profit for the year and 5·6% of
total assets and is material. At 31 March 2005 inventory was materially overvalued by $1·8m ($1·7m reported profit
should have been a $0·1m loss).
Tutorial note: 1/3 of the overvaluation was written off in the prior period (i.e. year to 31 March 2005) instead of $2·7m.
That the prior period’s auditor’s report was unmodified means that the previous auditor concurred with an incorrect
accounting treatment (or otherwise gave an inappropriate audit opinion).
As the matter is material a prior period adjustment is required (IAS 8 ‘Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting
Estimates and Errors’). $1·8m should be written off against opening reserves (i.e. restated as at 1 April 2005).
(ii) Restructuring provision
$2·3m expense has been charged to Tiltman’s profit and loss in arriving at a draft profit of $0·7m. This is very material.
(The provision represents 14·3% of Tiltman’s total assets and is material to the balance sheet date also.)
The provision for redundancies and onerous contracts should not have been made for the year ended 31 March 2006
unless there was a constructive obligation at the balance sheet date (IAS 37 ‘Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and
Contingent Assets’). So, unless the main features of the restructuring plan had been announced to those affected (i.e.
redundancy notifications issued to employees), the provision should be reversed. However, it should then be disclosed
as a non-adjusting post balance sheet event (IAS 10 ‘Events After the Balance Sheet Date’).
Given the short time (less than one month) between acquisition and the balance sheet it is very possible that a
constructive obligation does not arise at the balance sheet date. The relocation in May was only part of a restructuring
(and could be the first evidence that Johnston’s management has started to implement a restructuring plan).
There is a risk that goodwill on consolidation of Tiltman may be overstated in Johnston’s consolidated financial
statements. To avoid the $2·3 expense having a significant effect on post-acquisition profit (which may be negligible
due to the short time between acquisition and year end), Johnston may have recognised it as a liability in the
determination of goodwill on acquisition.
However, the execution of Tiltman’s restructuring plan, though made for the year ended 31 March 2006, was conditional
upon its acquisition by Johnston. It does not therefore represent, immediately before the business combination, a
present obligation of Johnston. Nor is it a contingent liability of Johnston immediately before the combination. Therefore
Johnston cannot recognise a liability for Tiltman’s restructuring plans as part of allocating the cost of the combination
(IFRS 3 ‘Business Combinations’).
Tiltman’s auditor’s report
The following adjustments are required to the financial statements:
■ restructuring provision, $2·3m, eliminated;
■ adequate disclosure of relocation as a non-adjusting post balance sheet event;
■ current period inventory written down by $0·9m;
■ prior period inventory (and reserves) written down by $1·8m.
Profit for the year to 31 March 2006 should be $3·9m ($0·7 + $0·9 + $2·3).
If all these adjustments are made the auditor’s report should be unmodified. Otherwise, the auditor’s report should be
qualified ‘except for’ on grounds of disagreement. If none of the adjustments are made, the qualification should still be
‘except for’ as the matters are not pervasive.
Johnston’s auditor’s report
If Tiltman’s auditor’s report is unmodified (because the required adjustments are made) the auditor’s report of Johnston
should be similarly unmodified. As Tiltman is wholly-owned by Johnston there should be no problem getting the
adjustments made.
If no adjustments were made in Tiltman’s financial statements, adjustments could be made on consolidation, if
necessary, to avoid modification of the auditor’s report on Johnston’s financial statements.
The effect of these adjustments on Tiltman’s net assets is an increase of $1·4m. Goodwill arising on consolidation (if
any) would be reduced by $1·4m. The reduction in consolidated total assets required ($0·9m + $1·4m) is therefore
the same as the reduction in consolidated total liabilities (i.e. $2·3m). $2·3m is material (4·2% consolidated total
assets). If Tiltman’s financial statements are not adjusted and no adjustments are made on consolidation, the
consolidated financial position (balance sheet) should be qualified ‘except for’. The results of operations (i.e. profit for
the period) should be unqualified (if permitted in the jurisdiction in which Johnston reports).
Adjustment in respect of the inventory valuation may not be required as Johnston should have consolidated inventory
at fair value on acquisition. In this case, consolidated total liabilities should be reduced by $2·3m and goodwill arising
on consolidation (if any) reduced by $2·3m.
Tutorial note: The effect of any possible goodwill impairment has been ignored as the subsidiary has only just been
acquired and the balance sheet date is very close to the date of acquisition.

(ii) Comment on the figures in the statement prepared in (a)(i) above. (4 marks)

正确答案:
(ii) The statement of product profitability shows that CTC is forecast to achieve a profit of $2·185 million in 2008 giving a
profit:sales ratio of 11·9%. However, the forecast profit in 2009 is only $22,000 which would give a profit:sales ratio
of just 0·19%! Total sales volume in 2008 is 390,000 units which represent 97·5% utilisation of total annual capacity.
In stark contrast, the total sales volume in 2009 is forecast to be 240,000 units which represents 60% utilisation of
total annual capacity and shows the expected rapid decline in sales volumes of Bruno and Kong products. The rapid
decline in the sales of these two products is only offset to a relatively small extent by increased sales volume from the
Leo product. It is vital that a new product or products with healthy contribution to sales ratios are introduced.
Management should also undertake cost/benefit analyses in order to assess the potential of extending the life of Bruno
and Kong products.

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