acca机考需要准备什么你知道吗?

发布时间:2020-05-05


最近,听说ACCA 将要全面实施机考考试,ACCA机考需要准备什么你知道吗?那不知道的朋友们看看51题库考试学习网给大家带来的这篇文章吧!

自2021年3月开始,ACCA全部考试科目都将统一采用机考考试,取消P阶段原有的笔试。作为一个新型的考试模式,对大家来说会有一定的挑战性,不过,这并不意味着机考考试要比传统的笔试要难度更大。ACCA的机考,就是整个考试过程全部利用计算机进行考试的意思。从笔试改革为机考,变动的只是考试的形式,考试内容、以及考察的知识点是没有发生任何变化的,所以考生不需要为了准备机考而额外学习其他的内容。在机考过程中,考生将在线完成ACCA考试,使用例如spreadsheets这样的专业工具能更好的体现考生在将来财务工作中的真实情况。

机考需要准备什么?在参与ACCA机考的时候,考生需要携带ACCA考试的准考证,以及带有个人照片的官方有效身份证件,以及允许考试使用的计算器。大家可以像如下方法积极面对改革:1.由于ACCA机考改革,是传统纸质考试向现代化数字考试的进化,对于考生来讲,最重要的是能用台式机键盘打得一手好字。考生需要熟练运用键盘进行英文作答,最好能够做到盲打的水平,能显著加快回答问题的速度,节省考试时间。2.利用好ACCA官方推荐的打字练习网站:进行打字训练。3.另外,ACCA官网中也会提供大家非常多的在线模拟题,大家可以进行刷题训练,加强自己对于机考答题方法的掌握。机考更加强调了计算机的使用能力,除了基础的打字速度会影响考试答题效果之外,学会各类Excel表格快捷键也可以帮助大家节省很多不必要的时间成本。

对了,大家知道ACCA的缴费情况吗?不知道的话就继续看下去吧!

缴费情况:

ACCA官网缴费是支持使用银联卡和支付宝的。但ACCA总部推荐学员使用双币信用卡在线考试报名。这样将可以及时确认报名成功并且可以享受提前考试报名时段的优惠价格。 但如果在我们缴纳ACCA报名费时,网页显示报名成功,但未收到银行扣款通知怎么办?如果其他步骤都没有出错,并且有显示报考成功的话,有可能是由于因为报名时ACCA使用的信用卡预授权消费,信用卡发卡行会先把你这笔缴费款冻结住,一般银行过1-2个工作日会跟ACCA官方对账,确定这笔款项真的没问题时,才会把费用真正扣除。所以,当出现上述情况时,先检查自己的各项信息,没错的话,可以过两天再查询具体情况吧!

以上就是由51题库考试学习网为您带来的有关AACA的相关信息了,想要获取更多信息的同学,请持续关注51题库考试学习网。


下面小编为大家准备了 ACCA考试 的相关考题,供大家学习参考。

6 Discuss how developments in each of the following areas has affected the scope of the audit and the audit work

undertaken:

(a) fair value accounting; (6 marks)

正确答案:
6 DEVELOPMENTS
General comments
Tutorial note: The following comments, that could be made in respect of any of the three areas of development, will be given
credit only once.
■ Audit scope – the scope of a statutory audit should be as necessary to form. an audit opinion (i.e. unlimited).
■ Audit work undertaken – the nature, timing and extent of audit procedures should be as necessary to implement the overall
audit plan.
(a) Fair value accounting
■ Different definitions of fair value exist (among financial reporting frameworks or for different assets and liabilities within
a particular framework). For example, under IFRS it is ‘the amount for which an asset could be exchanged (or a liability
settled) between knowledgeable, willing parties in an arm’s length transaction’.
■ The term ‘fair value accounting’ is used to describe the measurement and disclosure of assets and/or liabilities at fair
value and the charging to profit and loss (or directly to equity) of any changes in fair value measurements.
■ Fair value accounting concerns measurements and disclosures but not initial recognition of assets and liabilities in
financial statements. It does not then, for example, affect the nature, timing and extent of audit procedures to confirm
the existence and completeness of rights and obligations.
■ Fair value may be determined with varying degrees of subjectivity. For example, there will be little (if any) subjectivity
for assets bought and sold in active and open markets that readily provide reliable information on the prices at which
exchange transactions occur. However, the valuation of assets with unique characteristics (or entity-specific assets) often
requires the projection and discounting of future cash flows.
■ The audit of estimates of fair values based on valuation models/techniques can be approached like other accounting
estimates (in accordance with ISA 540 ‘Audit of Accounting Estimates’). However, although the auditor should be able
to review and test the process used by management to develop the estimate, there may be:
? a much greater need for an independent estimate (and hence greater reliance on the work of experts in accordance
with ISA 620);
? no suitable subsequent events to confirm the estimate made (e.g. for assets that are held for use and not for
trading).
Tutorial note: Consider, for example, how the audit of ‘in-process research and development’ might compare with that
for an allowance for slow-moving inventory.
■ Different financial reporting frameworks require or permit a variety of fair value measures and disclosures in financial
statements. They also vary in the level of guidance provided (to preparers of the financial statements – and hence their
auditors). Under IFRS, certain fair values are based on management intent and ‘reasonable supportable assumptions’.
■ The audit of management intent potentially increases the auditor’s reliance on management representations. The auditor
must obtain such representations from the highest level of management and exercise an appropriate degree of
professional scepticism, being particularly alert to the implications of any conflicting evidence.
■ A significant development in international financial reporting is that it is no longer sufficient to report transactions and
past and future events that may only be possible. IAS 1 ‘Presentation of Financial Statements’ (Revised) requires that
key assumptions (and other key sources of estimation uncertainty) be disclosed. This requirement gives rise to yet
another area on which auditors may qualify their audit opinion, on grounds of disagreement, where such disclosure is
incorrect or inadequate.
■ Perhaps one of the most significant impacts of fair value accounting on audit work is that it necessarily increases it.
Consider for example, that even where the fair value of an asset is as easily vouched as original cost, fair value is
determined at least annually whereas historic cost is unchanged (and not re-vouched to original purchase
documentation).

(ii) Analyse why moving to a ‘no frills’ low-cost strategy would be inappropriate for ONA.

Note: requirement (b) (ii) includes 3 professional marks (16 marks)

正确答案:
(ii) ‘No frills’ low-cost budget airlines are usually associated with the following characteristics. Each of these characteristics
is considered in the context of Oceania National Airlines (ONA).
– Operational economies of scale
Increased flight frequency brings operational economies and is attractive to both business and leisure travellers. In
the international sector where ONA is currently experiencing competition from established ‘no frills’ low-cost budget
airlines ONA has, on average, one flight per day to each city. It would have to greatly extend its flight network, flight
frequency and the size of its aircraft fleet if it planned to become a ‘no frills’ carrier in this sector. This fleet
expansion appears counter to the culture of an organisation that has expanded very gradually since its formation.
Table 1 shows only three aircraft added to the fleet in the period 2004–2006. It is likely that the fleet size would
have to double for ONA to become a serious ‘no frills’ operator in the international sector. In the regional sector, the
flight density, an average of three flights per day, is more characteristic of a ‘no frills’ airline. However, ONA would
have to address the relatively low utilisation of its aircraft (see Tables 1 and 2) and the cost of maintenance
associated with a relatively old fleet of aircraft.
– Reduced costs through direct sales
On-line booking is primarily aimed at eliminating commission sales (usually made through travel agents). ‘No frills’
low-cost budget airlines typically achieve over 80% of their sales on-line. The comparative figure for ONA (see
Table 2) is 40% for regional sales and 60% for international sales, compared with an average of 84% for their
competitors. Clearly a major change in selling channels would have to take place for ONA to become a ‘no frills’
low-cost budget airline. It is difficult to know whether this is possible. The low percentage of regional on-line sales
seems to suggest that the citizens of Oceania may be more comfortable buying through third parties such as travel
agents.
– Reduced customer service
‘No frills’ low-cost budget airlines usually do not offer customer services such as free meals, free drinks and the
allocation of passengers to specific seats. ONA prides itself on its in-flight customer service and this was one of the
major factors that led to its accolade as Regional Airline of the Year. To move to a ‘no frills’ strategy, ONA would
have to abandon a long held tradition of excellent customer service. This would require a major cultural change
within the organisation. It would also probably lead to disbanding the award winning (Golden Bowl) catering
department and the redundancies of catering staff could prove difficult to implement in a heavily unionised
organisation.
Johnson, Scholes and Whittington have suggested that if an organisation is to ‘achieve competitive advantage through
a low price strategy then it has two basic choices. The first is to try and identify a market segment which is unattractive
(or inaccessible) to competitors and in this way avoid competitive pressures to erode price.’ It is not possible for ONA to
pursue this policy in the international sector because of significant competition from established continental ‘no frills’
low-cost budget airlines. It may be a candidate strategy for the regional sector, but the emergence of small ‘no frills’ lowcost
budget airlines in these countries threaten this. Many of these airlines enter the market with very low overheads
and use the ‘no frills’ approach as a strategy to gain market share before progressing to alternative strategies.
Secondly, a ‘no frills’ strategy depends for its success on margin. Johnson, Scholes and Whittington suggest that ‘in the
long run, a low price strategy cannot be pursued without a low-cost base’. Evidence from the scenario suggests that ONA
does not have a low cost base. It continues to maintain overheads (such as a catering department) that its competitors
have either disbanded or outsourced. More fundamentally (from Table 2), its flight crew enjoy above average wages and
the whole company is heavily unionised. The scenario acknowledges that the company pays above industry salaries and
offers excellent benefits such as a generous non-contributory pension. Aircraft utilisation and aircraft age also suggest a
relatively high cost base. The aircraft are older than their competitors and presumably incur greater maintenance costs.
ONA’s utilisation of its aircraft is also lower than its competitors. It seems highly unlikely that ONA can achieve the
changes required in culture, cost base and operations required for it to become a ‘no frills’ low-cost budget airline. Other
factors serve to reinforce this. For example:
– Many ‘no frills’ low-cost budget airlines fly into airports that offer cheaper taking off and landing fees. Many of these
airports are relatively remote from the cities they serve. This may be acceptable to leisure travellers, but not to
business travellers – ONA’s primary market in the regional sector.
– Most ‘no frills’ low-cost budget airlines have a standardised fleet leading to commonality and familiarity in
maintenance. Although ONA has a relatively small fleet it is split between three aircraft types. This is due to
historical reasons. The Boeing 737s and Airbus A320s appear to be very similar aircraft. However, the Boeings
were inherited from OceaniaAir and the Airbuses from Transport Oceania.
In conclusion, the CEO’s decision to reject a ‘no frills’ strategy for ONA appears to be justifiable. It would require major
changes in structure, cost and culture that would be difficult to justify given ONA’s current position. Revolution is the
term used by Baligan and Hope to describe a major rapid strategic change. It is associated with a sudden transformation
required to react to extreme pressures on the organisation. Such an approach is often required when the company is
facing a crisis and needs to quickly change direction. There is no evidence to support the need for a radical
transformation. This is why the CEO brands the change to a ‘no frills’ low-cost budget airline as ‘unnecessary’. The
financial situation (Table 3) is still relatively healthy and there is no evidence of corporate predators. It can be argued
that a more incremental approach to change would be beneficial, building on the strengths of the organisation and the
competencies of its employees. Moving ONA to a ‘no frills’ model would require seismic changes in cost and culture. If
ONA really wanted to move into this sector then they would be better advised to start afresh with a separate brand andairline and to concentrate on the regional sector where it has a head start over many of its competitors.

The IOA Division is also considering whether to undertake an investment in the West of the country (the West Project).

An initial cash outlay investment of £12 million will be required and a net cash inflow amounting to £5 million is

expected to arise in each of the four years of the life of the project.

The activities involved in the West project will cause the local river to become polluted and discoloured due to the

discharge of waste substances from mining operations.

It is estimated that at the end of year four a cash outlay of £2 million would be required to restore the river to its

original colour. This would also clear 90% of the pollution caused as a result of the mining activities of the IOA

Division.

The remaining 10% of the pollution caused as a result of the mining activities of the IOA Division could be cleared

up by a further cash outlay of £2 million.

(c) Evaluate the West project and, stating your reasons, comment on whether the board of directors of NCL plc

should spend the further £2 million in order to eliminate the remaining 10% of pollution. (6 marks)

(Ignore Taxation).

正确答案:

(c) The net present value of the West project is dependent upon the level of environmental expenditure that will be incurred by
Division IOA at the conclusion of the project. The potential NPV of the West project can be calculated using a discount rate
of 12% per annum which assumes that the West project has similar characteristics to the North, East and South projects.
Net cash inflows for each of years 1–4 = £5 million
Cumulative discount factor at 12% per annum = 3·037
Therefore the present value of cashflows is £5 million x 3·037 = £15,185 million and the net cash flow after the initial
outlay of £12 million is £3,185,000.
There is now the strategic consideration regarding whether to spend £2 million which will restore the river to its original colour
and also clear 90% of the pollution caused as a result of the mining activities of the IOA Division, or to incur expenditure of
a further £2 million which will completely redress any damage done to the environment by the activities of the IOA Division.


(c) Explain the capital gains tax (CGT) and income tax (IT) issues Paul and Sharon should consider in deciding

which form. of trust to set up for Gisella and Gavin. You are not required to consider inheritance tax (IHT) or

stamp duty land tax (SDLT) issues. (10 marks)

You should assume that the tax rates and allowances for the tax year 2005/06 apply throughout this question.

正确答案:
(c) As the trust is created in the settlors’ (Paul and Sharon’s) lifetime its creation will constitute a chargeable disposal for capital
gains tax. Also, as the settlors and trustees are connected persons, the disposal will be deemed to be at market value, resulting
in a chargeable gain of £80,000 (160,000 – 80,000). No taper relief will be available as the property is a non-business
asset, and has been held for less than three years, but annual exemptions of £17,000 (2 x £8,500) will be available.
However, in the case of a discretionary trust, gift hold over relief will be available. This is because the gift will constitute a
chargeable lifetime transfer and because there is an immediate charge to inheritance tax (even though no tax is payable due
to the nil rate band) relief is available if a specific accumulation and maintenance trust is used, as in this case the gift will
qualify as a potentially exempt transfer and so gift relief would only be available in respect of business assets. The use of a
basic discretionary trust will thus facilitate the deferral of an immediate capital gains tax charge of £25,200 (63,000 x 40%).
If/when the property is disposed of, however, the trustees will pay capital gains tax on the deferred gain at the trust income
tax rate of 40%, and have an annual exemption of only £4,250 (50% of the normal individual rate) available to them. The
40% rate of tax and lower annual exemption rate also apply to chargeable gains arising in a specific accumulation and
maintenance trust, as well as a basic discretionary trust.
A chargeable disposal between connected persons will also arise for the purposes of capital gains tax if/when the property
vests in a beneficiary, i.e. one or more of the beneficiaries becomes absolutely entitled to all or part of the income or capital
of the trust. Gift hold over relief will again be available on all assets in the case of a discretionary trust, but only on business
assets in the case of an accumulation and maintenance trust, except where a beneficiary becomes entitled to both income
and capital at the same time.
The trust will have taxable property income in the form. of net rents from its creation and in future years is also likely to have
other investment income, probably in the form. of interest, to the extent that monies are retained in the trust. Whichever form
of trust is used, the trustees will pay tax at the standard trust rate of 40% on income other than dividend income (32·5%),
except to the extent of (1) the first £500 of taxable income, which is taxed at the rate that would otherwise apply to such
income (i.e. 22% for non-savings (rental) income, 20% for savings income (interest) and 10% for dividends) but, only to the
extent that it is not distributed; and (2) the legitimate trust management expenses, which are offsettable for the purposes of
the higher trust tax rates against the income with the lowest rate(s) of normal tax and so bear tax only at that rate. The higher
trust tax rate always applies to income that is distributed, other than to the extent that it has been treated as the settlor’s
income, and taxed at that settlor’s marginal tax rate.
As Paul and Sharon intend to create a trust for their unmarried minor (under 18) children, then even if the trust specifically
excludes them from any benefit under the trust, the trust income will be treated as theirs for income tax purposes to the extent
that it constitutes income paid for on behalf (including maintenance payments) of Gisella and Gavin; except where (1) the
total income arising does not exceed £100 gross per annum, and (2) income is held for the benefit of a child under an
accumulation and maintenance settlement, to the extent that it is not paid out.

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